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Finishing the transformations of the integer line, then introducing Pappus’ theorem and the reduction from the affine plane to the projective plane.
Recall the model \(\mathcal M_{\mathbb Z}\). Its points are the integers,
and its lines are the subsets
Last time, we introduced the translations
and the reflection
Each \(T_\ell \) is a transformation, and \(s\) is also a transformation. Since transformations form a group under composition, every map of the form
is a transformation.
The goal is to prove that these are all the transformations of \(\mathcal M_{\mathbb Z}\).
Let
Set
We want to simplify \(f\) by composing it with transformations that we already understand. Define
Then
Since \(\{0,1\}\) is a line and \(g\) is a transformation,
is a line. The only lines containing \(0\) are \(\{-1,0\}\) and \(\{0,1\}\). Hence
Choose \(S\in \{\operatorname {id},s\}\) as follows:
Define
Then
This is the normalization step: starting from an arbitrary transformation \(f\), we constructed a simpler transformation \(h\) fixing both \(0\) and \(1\).
We now prove that if \(h\in \operatorname {Aut}(\mathcal M_{\mathbb Z})\), \(h(0)=0\), and \(h(1)=1\), then
From last time, we already proved by strong induction that
for every \(k\geq 0\). It remains to prove the same statement for negative integers.
First, since \(\{-1,0\}\) is a line,
is a line. Thus \(h(-1)=1\) or \(h(-1)=-1\). But \(h(1)=1\), and \(h\) is injective. Since \(-1\neq 1\), we cannot have \(h(-1)=1\). Therefore
We now prove by strong induction that
for every \(k\geq 0\). We already know this for \(k=0\) and \(k=1\).
Assume that \(n\geq 1\), and suppose that
We prove that
Since \(\{-(n+1),-n\}\) is a line, its image is a line:
Thus \(h(-(n+1))\) is adjacent to \(-n\). Hence
But \(h(-(n-1))=-(n-1)\) by the induction hypothesis, and \(h\) is injective. Since \(-(n+1)\neq -(n-1)\), we cannot have
Therefore
By strong induction,
for every \(k\geq 0\). Combining this with the result for nonnegative integers, we get
for every \(k\in \mathbb Z\). Hence
Recall that
Since \(h=\operatorname {id}\), we have
We now solve this equation for \(f\). Composing on the left by \(S^{-1}\), we get
Composing on the left by \(T_L\), we get
Now \(S\) is either \(\operatorname {id}\) or \(s\). In both cases,
Indeed, \(\operatorname {id}^{-1}=\operatorname {id}\), and
so \(s^{-1}=s\). Therefore
Thus the transformations of \(\mathcal M_{\mathbb Z}\) are exactly the maps
We now turn to a classical theorem of incidence geometry.
Let \(\mathbb F\) be \(\mathbb Q\), \(\mathbb R\), \(\mathbb C\), or more generally any field. We work in the affine plane
Theorem (Affine Pappus). Let \(\ell \) and \(m\) be two distinct lines in \(\mathbb A^2(\mathbb F)\). Let
be three distinct points, and let
be three distinct points. Assume the following non-degeneracy conditions:
the three intersection points
Then \(P,Q,R\) are collinear.
The condition that \(P,Q,R\) exist is important in the affine plane. For example, it may happen that the lines \(AB'\) and \(A'B\) are parallel. In that case, the point
does not exist in the affine plane.
However, if \(AB'\) and \(A'B\) are parallel, then they meet at a point at infinity in the projective completion. This suggests that the theorem should become cleaner in the projective plane.
There are two main reasons to prove Pappus’ theorem projectively.
First, in the affine plane, there are different cases. The two lines \(\ell \) and \(m\) may be parallel or they may meet. A direct affine proof has to treat these cases separately.
Second, some of the intersection points \(P,Q,R\) may fail to exist in the affine plane because the corresponding lines are parallel. In the projective plane, distinct lines always meet.
Thus the projective plane removes both difficulties: there is no parallel case, and the missing affine intersections become points at infinity.
Recall the standard embedding
This map lets us view the affine plane as the part of the projective plane where the last homogeneous coordinate is nonzero.
A key property is the following.
Collinearity is preserved. For points \(P,Q,R\in \mathbb A^2(\mathbb F)\),
if and only if
Indeed, an affine line has an equation
and its projective completion has equation
If \((x,y)\) lies on the affine line, then \([x:y:1]\) lies on the corresponding projective line. Conversely, a projective line containing points with \(Z=1\) gives an affine line after setting \(Z=1\).
Therefore, to prove affine Pappus, it is enough to prove a projective version of Pappus.
Theorem (Projective Pappus). Let \(\ell \) and \(m\) be two distinct lines in \(\mathbb P^2(\mathbb F)\). Let
be three distinct points, and let
be three distinct points. Assume that none of these six points is equal to the point
Define
Then \(P,Q,R\) are collinear.
In the projective plane, the points \(P,Q,R\) always exist, because any two distinct projective lines meet. Thus the theorem has a cleaner statement than in the affine plane.